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The thread linked below's newspaper articles about England, got me to think on some shee-it!
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If allowances can be made on religious grounds regarding what constitutes breaking the law, does the same not have to apply to people that hold no faith at all?
If an aetheist, that holds no belief, has to conform to laws that were founded on a religious basis. Do these laws not completely undermine an aetheists choice not to believe?
On that basis, should an aetheist be exempt from any law that derives from religion?
Premium Link Upgrade
If allowances can be made on religious grounds regarding what constitutes breaking the law, does the same not have to apply to people that hold no faith at all?
If an aetheist, that holds no belief, has to conform to laws that were founded on a religious basis. Do these laws not completely undermine an aetheists choice not to believe?
On that basis, should an aetheist be exempt from any law that derives from religion?
